Questions

A 1-month-old baby has a renal ultrasound as part of the workup after a UTI. A solid renal lesion is discovered in the upper pole. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 20-year-old female presented for routine antenatal scan. A single transverse ultrasound image is provided. All of the following are correct regarding the condition shown in the image EXCEPT...

A 20-year-old female, primigravida underwent routine antenatal ultrasound. A single transabdominal ultrasound image of the fetus is provided. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 25-year-old female presented for routine antenatal ultrasound. A single transverse ultrasound image is provided. Which of the following options regarding the provided image is correct?

A 25-year-old female presents with complaints of vaginal bleeding for 20 days. She gives a history of a pharmacological termination of pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 25-year-old male presents with a 2-week history of acute breathlessness and chest pain. CT thorax with contrast shows a heterogeneous anterior mediastinal mass and multiple lung nodules. Which is the next best step for diagnosis?

A 30-year-old female presented at 20 weeks of gestation for routine ultrasound. A single ultrasound image is provided. All of the following are true regarding this entity EXCEPT...

A 35-year-old female presents for local staging of biopsy-proven squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. MRI shows a 1.5 cm intermediate T2 signal intensity lesion in the anterior lip of the cervix at the squamocolumnar junction with no involvement of the upper vagina. In addition, there is a rounded 9 mm short-axis left obturator node that also returns an intermediate T2 signal. What is the International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage based on imaging?

A 42-year-old female presents for local staging of biopsy-proven cervical adenocarcinoma. MRI shows a barrel-shaped lesion in the cervix that breaches the cervical stromal ring and extends into the parametrium. There is no extension to the pelvic side wall and there are no suspicious nodes on imaging. What is the most likely management pathway?

A 47 year old lady has a CT of her chest. The right ventricle is dilated when compared to the left. The pulmonary arteries are normal. Which is the most likely cause?

A 75 year old lady has a CT after a history of breathlessness. There is a mass within the right atrium related to the free wall. The epicardial fat plane is lost and there is a pericardial effusion. Which is most likely?

A Chiari 1.5 malformation is best described as... 

A hemivertebra that is compensated by overgrowth of an adjacent segment, limiting the degree of scoliosis caused, is referred to as…

All of the following are developmental causes of absent cavum septi pellucidi EXCEPT...

All the following are considered as risk factors for carcinoma of the cervix EXCEPT...

All the following may be considered as complications of a pelvic inflammatory disease EXCEPT...

All the following may be considered as risk factors for tubo-ovarian abscess EXCEPT...

All the following points are considered as risk factors for ectopic pregnancy EXCEPT...

All the following points are considered as the maternal factors for a high-risk pregnancy EXCEPT...

All the following points are considered as the maternal factors for a post-term pregnancy EXCEPT...